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tmorten


Registered: Sep 03
Posts: 191

http://www.maths.ex.ac.uk/~mwatkins/

03/25/04 15:17
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Coppernicus2


Registered: Jun 03
Posts: 158

http://www.maths.ex.ac.uk/~mwatkins/zeta/ss-a.htm

... so what?

If we create a game that says that by these rules of division only certain numbers can follow, then they will follow...

... and? Are they indicative of how works the universe, by design or by default, or are they indicative of how works the numbers game?

Very fine reference, indeed!

A puzzle: Why is it that any number multiplied by its inverse fraction always equals to one? i.e., 1/n * n = 1

Any number will work, prime or not. Would zero * infinity = 1 too?



__________________
I have formally 'resigned' (tactical withdraw) from the Space-Talk boards; mine were many questions, ideas, but no real answers. Thanks. 04/10/04.

Disclaimer: Please note the ideas expressed here by me are cutting edge theory, very speculative in nature, and not physics as it is being currently taught. Caveat lector.

03/28/04 00:10
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Shambolic


Registered: Nov 03
Posts: 369

quote:
A puzzle: Why is it that any number multiplied by its inverse fraction always equals to one? i.e., 1/n * n = 1
Ummm, how about...because that's the definition of an inverse?

quote:
Any number will work, prime or not. Would zero * infinity = 1 too?
No, for many good reasons. Here's a simple one:

let 0 * infinity = 1

=> 2 * (0 * infinity) = 2 * 1

=> (2 * 0) * infinity = 2 (because multiplication is associative)

=> 0 * infinity = 2

But 0 * infinity = 1

=> 2 = 1

We have a contradiction, thereby proving the the expression
0 * infinity = 1
is false.
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Shambolic - keeping it complex analytic

03/28/04 00:59
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Coppernicus2


Registered: Jun 03
Posts: 158

Shambolic, since I happen to be around (having survived the worse case of flue ever) I thought it fun to check out tmorten's page.

quote:
Ummm, how about...because that's the definition of an inverse?
... or course! That's by definition, same as a Prime number is by definition. You sets the rules, and we plays the games.

On the other matter:
quote:
let 0 * infinity = 1

=> 2 * (0 * infinity) = 2 * 1

=> (2 * 0) * infinity = 2 (because multiplication is associative)

=> 0 * infinity = 2
... it depends upon how you sets the rules. If you say 0 * infinity (as a function of progressively larger n and their inverse 1/n to where they 'approximate' infinity and zero) = 1, then by multiplying (per yours) => 2 * (0 * infinity) = 2 * 1.

So far, so good. But here is the problem: If by definition "0 * infinity = 1", then when you break out (2 * 0) without doing the same for (1/n , where n => infinity) at the same time, then you are giving a new definition for zero, since it now is no longer a progression of smaller inverse fractions to infinity. In effect, does zero really exist or not?

So here is the falsety: if we failed to follow thru correctly on the rules we set oursevelves in the first place, the results will be false, as per our rules.

Therefore, 2 (0 * infinity) = 2, even if multiplying an integer n by zero is not allowed.

Since the basic definition of (0 * infinity), as a function of identically inverse numbers (to infinity on high end, and zero on low end), is always = one, by the first definition of inverse numbers multiplied together are always equal to one, then multiplying any number by the function (0 * infinity) is always multiplying by the function (1/n * n, where n => infinity), which is always the same as if multiplying by one.

Thus, (0 * infinity) * n = n * 1, since (0 * infinity) is always = 1, by definition of inverse functions.

"Gentlemen, pick your definitions and take ten paces..."


__________________
I have formally 'resigned' (tactical withdraw) from the Space-Talk boards; mine were many questions, ideas, but no real answers. Thanks. 04/10/04.

Disclaimer: Please note the ideas expressed here by me are cutting edge theory, very speculative in nature, and not physics as it is being currently taught. Caveat lector.

03/28/04 01:27
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Shambolic


Registered: Nov 03
Posts: 369

quote:
In effect, does zero really exist or not?
Yes. It's the additive identity.

ie. x + 0 = 0 + x = x for all x


Are you ever going to admit that you know less about something than those who study it?
Here's how things work:

The Natural numbers (1,2,3,4...) are trivial. We can have one apple, or two apples etc.

From the natural numbers, we can construct the integers (...-2,-1,0,1,2...).

From the integers, we can contruct the rational numbers. These are the set of numbers that can be represented as p/q, where p,q are integers and q is not 0.

And so on to the real numbers, the complex numbers etc.

The basic operations on these sets of numbers are generalisations of multiplication and addition on the natural numbers.


All these constructions are performed in a logically complete way. Of course, you could construct other number systems and operations, but they have to be logically complete.

I'm halfway through an advanced Vector Analysis assignment, so I'm going to leave it there. I think I said enough to make my point.
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Shambolic - keeping it complex analytic

03/28/04 03:19
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Coppernicus2


Registered: Jun 03
Posts: 158

Shambolic, in ur:

quote:
Are you ever going to admit that you know less about something than those who study it?
You both missed my point and proved it at the same time: mathematics is by definition. Of course we can construct progressively more complex mathematical structures from basic numbers, because this is how we defined them. What's the problem? If we make rules that are logical and then stick numbers to them to obey these rules of logic and relationships, we call it math. There is no great mystery here, not as if by some magic these numbers now represent some inner truths of the Universe. They are merely numbers. That's my point, why I first said "so what?" to Prime numbers.

Why would you ever think this is somehow indicative of me not admitting to not knowing more than others who study it? What was the point of your above? Is it because I am defining a mathematical term, that any integer multiplied by its inverse equals one, and stretching this definition towards infinity and zero? Or is it somethng else? If it is for personal dislike... too bad. Mathematics does not go away with personal likes or dislikes.


__________________
I have formally 'resigned' (tactical withdraw) from the Space-Talk boards; mine were many questions, ideas, but no real answers. Thanks. 04/10/04.

Disclaimer: Please note the ideas expressed here by me are cutting edge theory, very speculative in nature, and not physics as it is being currently taught. Caveat lector.

03/28/04 06:41
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Shambolic


Registered: Nov 03
Posts: 369

Sorry, that last post was very hurried, and did a bad job of making any point at all (except the additive identity part).

You're right that definitions are very important in maths. But that doesn't mean you can define whatever you like. The limit as n -> infinity of n * 1/n = 1, but that doesn't mean you can say 0 * infinity = 1, because that leads to contradictions, as I pointed out earlier.

As for the primes...what I was trying to say earlier is that the properties of the natural numbers don't arise from definitions; they really are fundamental. If you take 12 marbles, you can put 4 into each of 3 bags, or 6 into each of 2 bags. Call these experimental facts, if you like.
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Shambolic - keeping it complex analytic

03/28/04 15:36
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Coppernicus2


Registered: Jun 03
Posts: 158

quote:
You're right that definitions are very important in maths. But that doesn't mean you can define whatever you like. The limit as n -> infinity of n * 1/n = 1, but that doesn't mean you can say 0 * infinity = 1, because that leads to contradictions, as I pointed out earlier.
Yes, of course, that's a given, that we cannot arbitrarily give definitions to math and expect they will work. As you point out, there has to be experimental evidence to support the structure of how the math is defined, or it's self contradicting nonsense.

The reason I keep bringing up uncomfortable questions is not because I am ornery, but because I have a genuine interest in knowing why on a grander scale of things, in academia and the real world, some things are allowed, while others are not. Primarily, why is it that we are told, universally by absolutely everyone, that we cannot multiply or divide by zero? This is not a fickle question, because the definition of zero itself is not ironclad. What is nothing?

You are aware that in calculus, progressively smaller deltas are theorized down to near zero to calculate, at a zero point, the slope of a curve. Now, is this zero really a point at nothing? Or is it more like the zero I illustrated in 1/n * n = 1, where n => infinity, so that zero * infinity = 1? Do you see why I question this definition of zero? On one hand, the one where rightly we cannot use zero to multiply or divide, zero is nothing. But on the other hand, where we can use zero as a tendency towards nothingness, such as a zero point on a curve, we can use this "zero" though it does not represent nothingness, and that number can be multiplied or divided, because by definition that "zero" has a value to it, the slope of the curve.

This is why I showed these definitions in succession: 1. The inverse function, and 2. inverse taken to some infinite end, where it approximates zero and infinity, 3. zero times infinity is equal to one.

These do not constitute a proof, nor do they dispel the notion that we cannot multiply or divide by zero, or infinity, but it shows that in theory, it can be done. Why is this important? Because in the future, we may need to do the math by multiplying zero and infinity, though we have no way to do so now, except to "normalize" it by removing these math nuissance obstructions.
_______________________________________________________
As an aside, the Pythagoreans were so violent in their arguments over math that they would even kill each other over obscure points!.. obviously a bit excessive.

__________________
I have formally 'resigned' (tactical withdraw) from the Space-Talk boards; mine were many questions, ideas, but no real answers. Thanks. 04/10/04.

Disclaimer: Please note the ideas expressed here by me are cutting edge theory, very speculative in nature, and not physics as it is being currently taught. Caveat lector.

03/28/04 18:45
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Shambolic


Registered: Nov 03
Posts: 369

This discussion shouldn't lead to homicide

Trivial point: we can multiply by zero.

As I said before, the best way to 'define' zero is probably by 0 + x = x + 0 = x for all x. I know that's a very abstract way to do it, but that's how maths is.

The theory of limits is fairly technical. But never do we divide by zero. sin(x)/x is undefined at x=0, but the limit as x -> 0 of sin(x)/x = 1.

One of the problems with what you were saying (1/n * n as n -> infinity) is that your logic is...
1. n * 1/n = 1
2. Now let n -> infinity
So far so good. The next step is the mistake. You say "therefore infinity * 0 = 1" but in doing so, you implicitly assumed that 1/infinity = 0. You can't assume what you're trying to prove!!
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Shambolic - keeping it complex analytic

03/29/04 06:52
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wintermute11


Registered: Mar 03
Posts: 485

Coppernicus2, I don't think that 1/n * n = 1 is anything particularly interesting. If you perform an action on something, and then perform the opposite action, it's intuitive that you should end up with what you started with. If you divide 1 by a number, and then do the opposite (multiple that result by the same number) you'll end up with what you started with, 1. However, as Shambolic pointed you, you do need to put restrictions on n. Algebraicly, you should just see at a glance that the n's cancel and you just equal with 1=1. The only exceptions being when n=0 or infinity.

Mathematical proofs are an entirely different beast that you might want to stay away from. Any number divided by 0 is undefined in the real domain (we can annotate these numbers in the complex domain, i.e. imaginary numbers). Unlike physical sciences, laws of math are immutable. Math is not negotiable.

03/29/04 15:56
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